Metzora #2- Numbers

"וְהָיָה֩ בַיּ֨וֹם הַשְּׁבִיעִ֜י יְגַלַּ֣ח אֶת־כָּל־שְׂעָר֗וֹ אֶת־רֹאשׁ֤וֹ וְאֶת־זְקָנוֹ֙ וְאֵת֙ גַּבֹּ֣ת עֵינָ֔יו וְאֶת־כָּל־שְׂעָר֖וֹ יְגַלֵּ֑חַ וְכִבֶּ֣ס אֶת־בְּגָדָ֗יו וְרָחַ֧ץ אֶת־בְּשָׂר֛וֹ בַּמַּ֖יִם וְטָהֵֽר" - Perek Yud Daled, Pasuk Tet

Why did the torah have to first give a general statement, then a specific one, the another general one? Why did it have to be on the 7th day? Why did the torah specify these three places? Why did these actions then make him clean again?

What are other times the number 7 is symbolic in the Torah and what does it represent?

Rashi says: The general statement, followed by a specific statement followed again, by a general statement is to include every place where hair grows in a bunch and is visible, [bearing a similarity to the hair of the head, the beard, and the eyebrows]."

Metzora #1- Purification Process

In this weeks parsha, it talks about a person who is inflicted with tzaraat and the purification process. In פסוק יא, it says, “וְהֶֽעֱמִ֞יד הַכֹּהֵ֣ן הַֽמְטַהֵ֗ר אֵ֛ת הָאִ֥ישׁ הַמִּטַּהֵ֖ר וְאֹתָ֑ם לִפְנֵ֣י יְהֹוָ֔ה פֶּ֖תַח אֹ֥הֶל מוֹעֵֽד”. What does it mean to put the person “״לפני ה׳? Isn’t Hashem everywhere? Rashi comments on this and says that he should be put at the gate of the Mishkan but not inside the courtyard since he is not pure. 
What are other reasons for each step of the purification process for a person who has tzara'at?

Tazria #3- Tzara'at's Symbolism

In Tazriya, Perek י״ג Pasuk ב talks about leprosy and skin discoloration. The topic continues throughout the entire perek 

אָדָ֗ם כִּֽי־יִהְיֶ֤ה בְעוֹר־בְּשָׂרוֹ֙ שְׂאֵ֤ת אֽוֹ־סַפַּ֙חַת֙ א֣וֹ בַהֶ֔רֶת וְהָיָ֥ה בְעוֹר־בְּשָׂר֖וֹ לְנֶ֣גַע צָרָ֑עַת וְהוּבָא֙ אֶל־אַהֲרֹ֣ן הַכֹּהֵ֔ן א֛וֹאֶל־אַחַ֥ד מִבָּנָ֖יו הַכֹּהֲנִֽים׃

When a person has on the skin of his body a swelling, a rash, or a discoloration, and it develops into a scaly infection on the skin of his body, it shall be reported to Aaron the priest or to one of his sons, the priests.

Why does a person get leprosy/what does it mean when a person gets leprosy?

Why is it so necessary to have a whole Perek going into so many details and explanations about the process? Also, why are there rules that a Priest may not preform a Bris Milah if the child has any of those skin conditions, What is the reasoning for this? There are some real life cases in the Torah where someone had leprosy where was it and why did they get it?

Rav shamshon Raphael Hirsh says that leprosy shouldn’t be seen as a medical condition but rather as a personal spiritual problem that one needs to fix . A person gets leprosy when they have a religious problem like speaking lashin hara . As proof, he says that tzarat was treated by a priest not a doctor. (Leprosy can also show up in walls and clothes which would be another way of showing that it isn’t a medical problem but rather a spiritual one)

Tazria #2- Childbirth

In this week's parsha it says in Vayikra Perek Yud Bet, Pasuk Bet

‎דַּבֵּ֞ר אֶל־בְּנֵ֤י יִשְׂרָאֵל֙ לֵאמֹ֔ר אִשָּׁה֙ כִּ֣י תַזְרִ֔יעַ וְיָלְדָ֖ה זָכָ֑ר וְטָֽמְאָה֙ שִׁבְעַ֣ת יָמִ֔ים כִּימֵ֛י נִדַּ֥ת דְּוֺתָ֖הּ תִּטְמָֽא׃

Speak to the Israelite people thus: When a woman at childbirth bears a male, she shall be unclean seven days; she shall be unclean as at the time of her menstrual infirmity.

Questions: What is the meaning/ function of the word תזריע? Or what is the function of her being unclean for 7 days? What is the difference between if she has a girl or a boy? Why does childbirth lead to tuma?

Ibn Ezra says that Tazria literally means “yields seed” because a woman resembles the earth when it comes to her reproductive abilities. He also says the reason for her being unclean for 7 days is to wait for her to enter the next lunar quarter. (Also when someone is sick, there are usually changes about 7 days in).

Tazria #1- Tzara'at's Impact

פרק י״ג - פסוק ב

״אדם כי יהיה בעור בשרו שאת או ספחת או בהרת והיה בעור בשרו לנגע צרעת והובא אל אהרון הכוהן או אל אחד מבניו הכהנים.״

“If a man has a se’eith, a sappachath, or a baheret on the skin of his flesh, and it forms a lesion of tzaraat on the skin of his flesh, he shall be brought to Aaron the kohen, or to one of his sons, the kohanim.”

Question: 

When צרעת starts to form on one's skin, they are quickly brought to אהרון or to one of his sons, the כוהנים. But what did צרעת actually look like? Was it always obvious when one was impure with צרעת? Why did Tzara'at impact a person's environment and things they owned? 

A source that relates to my question: 

The passuk only states that בהרת forms into צרעת. Rashi wonders what the word "בהרת" in passuk bet actually means. He says that baheret means "spot" in Old French and is similar to a verse in איוב; “It’s like bright clouds in the skies”, like how the spots are created by bright clouds in the blue sky.

Shemini #2- Nadav & Avihu

perek yud pusuk aleph and bet- Nadav and Abihu sinned and were killed by hashem. 

וַיִּקְח֣וּ בְנֵי־אַֽ֠הֲרֹ֠ן נָדָ֨ב וַֽאֲבִיה֜וּא אִ֣ישׁ מַחְתָּת֗וֹ וַיִּתְּנ֤וּ בָהֵן֙ אֵ֔שׁ וַיָּשִׂ֥ימוּ עָלֶ֖יהָ קְטֹ֑רֶת וַיַּקְרִ֜יבוּ לִפְנֵ֤י יְהֹוָה֙ אֵ֣שׁ זָרָ֔ה אֲשֶׁ֧ר לֹ֦א צִוָּ֖ה אֹתָֽם:

And Aaron's sons, Nadab and Abihu, each took his pan, put fire in them, and placed incense upon it, and they brought before the Lord foreign fire, which He had not commanded them.

וַתֵּ֥צֵא אֵ֛שׁ מִלִּפְנֵ֥י יְהֹוָ֖ה וַתֹּ֣אכַל אוֹתָ֑ם וַיָּמֻ֖תוּ לִפְנֵ֥י יְהֹוָֽה:

And fire went forth from before the Lord and consumed them, and they died before the Lord.

what was their sin? 

Rashi says that Rabbi Yishmaeal says that they were drunk when they went into the mikdash. 

Q: What are other reasons to what their sin was? What did they do wrong?

Shemini #1- Kosher?

In this week's parsha it says in vayikra perek yud aleph pasuk bet

דַּבְּר֛וּ אֶל־בְּנֵ֥י יִשְׂרָאֵ֖ל לֵאמֹ֑ר זֹ֤את הַֽחַיָּה֙ אֲשֶׁ֣ר תֹּֽאכְל֔וּ מִכָּל־הַבְּהֵמָ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֥ר עַל־הָאָֽרֶץ:

“Speak to the children of Israel, saying: These are the creatures that you may eat among all the animals on earth:”

Question: Why did Hashem make a commandment to the jews regarding certain types of animals they cannot eat?

Answer: Rashi says, since the Jews are worthy of being alive, accordingly, Hashem created commandment that would separate them from unholyness and help them live. He did not make any restricting commandments to other nations.

This can be comparable to a doctor who had an incurable patient, therefore he let him eat whatever he wanted but for his patient that had to potential to live, he gave a restricting diet in order to ensure his health.

Israel is the curable patient and all the other nations are incurable

Source: https://www.chabad.org/parshah/torahreading.asp?aid=2492724&jewish=Shemini-Torah-Reading.htm&p=6#showrashi=true

Question: What are other reasons why hashem gave bnei yisroel restrictions on certain animals? Foods?  Are there any cases of a grey area?

Tzav #1

The Iban Ezra comments on the word הָעֹלָ֡ה: It is the burnt-offering so called because all of it ascends up to the Altar. This verse implies that one should not sacrifice the burnt-offering at night, because it must burn on the pyre all night. The word the pyre ends in an extra heh (or perhaps Hebrew contains both a masculine and a feminine form of the word).

Question: why else should you not do any sacrifices at night?

Tzav #3

In Perek Vav, Pasuk Alef it says צַ֤ו אֶֽת־אַהֲרֹן֙ וְאֶת־בָּנָ֣יו לֵאמֹ֔ר זֹ֥את תּוֹרַ֖ת הָעֹלָ֑ה הִ֣וא הָעֹלָ֡ה עַל֩ מוֹקְדָ֨ה עַל־הַמִּזְבֵּ֤חַ כָּל־הַלַּ֙יְלָה֙ עַד־הַבֹּ֔קֶר וְאֵ֥שׁ הַמִּזְבֵּ֖חַ תּ֥וּקַד בּֽוֹ׃

Question: Why does it say “tzav”, command, instead of “daber”, speak, as the word is used in the previous pasuk?

Answer: Rashi says to show the urgency of the this action that Hashem wanted to convey.

What are other possibilities as to why Hashem used the word “tzav”, command?

Why did Hashem make this action seem so urgent?

Tzav #2

1And the Lord spoke to Moses, saying,		אוַיְדַבֵּ֥ר יְהֹוָ֖ה אֶל־משֶׁ֥ה לֵּאמֹֽר:
2Command Aaron and his sons, saying, This is the law of the burnt offering: That is the burnt offering which burns on the altar all night until morning, and the fire of the altar shall burn with it. (Leviticus 6:1-2)		בצַ֤ו אֶת־אַֽהֲרֹן֙ וְאֶת־בָּנָ֣יו לֵאמֹ֔ר זֹ֥את תּוֹרַ֖ת הָֽעֹלָ֑ה הִ֣וא הָֽעֹלָ֡ה עַל֩ מוֹ

The parsha this week is tzav, literally meaning command. This parsha is about HaShem commanding us to serve him through korbanot. But tzav can also mean connect. These different meanings teach us that through HaShem’s commandments, and through serving Him, we also find ways to connect with him. 

The Lubavitcher Rebbe teaches us that there is still that Tzav- connection, even if someone does not follow all of the 613 mitzvot. The sages teach “even though he sinned, he is a Jew.” Of course we want to serve our role by following these mitzvot, and have a bigger connection because of it.

What other meanings does the word Tzav have? What do those meanings teach us? Why is it placed at the beginning of the parsha? 

Source: 

https://www.chabad.org/parshah/article_cdo/aid/2077/jewish/Making-the-Connection.htm

Vayikra #2- Korbanot

Parshat Vayikra, Perek Alef PAsuk Daled

And he shall lean his hand [forcefully] upon the head of the burnt offering, and it will be accepted for him to atone for him.

דוְסָמַ֣ךְ יָד֔וֹ עַ֖ל רֹ֣אשׁ הָֽעֹלָ֑ה וְנִרְצָ֥ה ל֖וֹ לְכַפֵּ֥ר עָלָֽיו:

The context of this pasuk is Hashem speaking to Moshe and commanding him to teach bnei yisroel how to make KArbanot and the proper way to give them. Hashem gives Moshe a few rules about how the animal should look and then commands him to put his hands on the head of the burnt offering. There is a question on this as to why the Pasuk added the words “burnt offering” when it could have just said “upon its head.”

Rashis opinion is that it includes “burnt offering” to include any sacrifice that includes a burnt offering, and to show that the smicha burnt offering also requires hands on head. And since this Perek and Parsha deals with voluntary Karbanot offerings, this case requires extra words to include it.

What are other reasons a person has to put their hands on the korban's head?
What is the purpose of karbanot in general?

Vayikra #1- Little Aleph

In this weeks Parsha, פרק א , פסוק א the Pasuk Says:

"וַיִּקְרָ֖א אֶל־משֶׁ֑ה וַיְדַבֵּ֤ר יְהֹוָה֙ אֵלָ֔יו מֵאֹ֥הֶל מוֹעֵ֖ד לֵאמֹֽר"

"And He called to Moses, and the Lord spoke to him from the Tent of Meeting, saying" 

Question: Why is the word Vayikra in the first pasuk written with a small aleph? (The small aleph is only visible in a torah scroll)

Rashi says that Hashem uses the word "Vayikra" as opposed to another speaking verb because it is an affectionate term. For example this term is used by the angels when speaking to each other. When Hashem is speaking to other nations naavim he uses the world "Vaayikar" which is a less affectionate term. While Moshe was writing down the torah Hashem told him to write Vayikra to show affection however moshe was very humble and didn't want to seem greater then the other naavim so he wrote it w as a small aleph.

Question: What are some other opinions as to why this word is written with a small aleph?

Pekudei #3

In פרק לח פסוק כו, Bne yisrael is told that each person who is 20 years old or up has to give half a shekel towards building the mishkan. It says the total number of people of age were 603,550 men. What is the significance of the half shekel and of the number of men? Why is It mentioned? What is the significance of the age of 20?

Chizkuni says that even though half a shekel is not a lot of money, bne Yisrael relied on HaShem to provide the rest. 

Pekudei #2

In Perek 38 , Pasuk 21 it says:

אֵ֣לֶּה פְקוּדֵ֤י הַמִּשְׁכָּן֙ מִשְׁכַּ֣ן הָעֵדֻ֔ת אֲשֶׁ֥ר פֻּקַּ֖ד עַל־פִּ֣י מֹשֶׁ֑ה עֲבֹדַת֙ הַלְוִיִּ֔ם בְּיַד֙ אִֽיתָמָ֔ר בֶּֽן־אַהֲרֹ֖ן הַכֹּהֵֽן׃

Rashi asks why does it says "Hamishkan" twice?

Rashi answers by saying that its repeated twice because its a hint to two Best Hamidkash's.

what are some ways of interpreting  משכן העדת ? What does it mean when it says  בְּיַד֙ אִֽיתָמָ֔ר?

Pekudei #1

"ויעשו את בגדי הקדש אשר לאהרן כאשר צוה ה' את משה"

“And they made the holy garments for Aharon, as G‑d had commanded Moshe.” (39:1)

Why was it necessary to stress “as G‑d had commanded Moshe”?

Because The words “as G‑d had commanded Moshe” are repeated 18 times in this parshah and 18 is equal to “chai” (חי) — “life.” The Torah informs us that throughout his entire life, Moshe continuously strove to do as G‑d commanded him.

What are alternative explanations as to why the pusuk stated that Hashem commanded Moshe to make Aharon’s garments? What are other words/phrases that seem unnecessary or repetitive in this week's parsha and what do they symbolize?

Vayakhel #3- Menora

יד וְאֶת־מְנֹרַ֧ת הַמָּא֛וֹר וְאֶת־כֵּלֶ֖יהָ וְאֶת־נֵֽרֹתֶ֑יהָ וְאֵ֖ת שֶׁ֥מֶן הַמָּאֽוֹר: (Exodus 35)

“and the menorah for lighting and its implements and its lamps, and the oil for lighting”

Question:

Why does the pasuk say that the menorah was used for lighting but then repeats itself by saying the oil was used for lighting?

Rashi says that the pasuk specifies oil because the oil used for the menorah was different from other oils. The olives used for this oil were olives that were picked from the top of the olive trees and were pure.

What are other things we can learn from the way the Menora was built and used in the Mishkan?

Vayakhel #2-Mishkan + Shabbos?

In פרק לה, פסוק ב it says,

שֵׁ֣שֶׁת יָמִים֮ תֵּעָשֶׂ֣ה מְלָאכָה֒ וּבַיּ֣וֹם הַשְּׁבִיעִ֗י יִהְיֶ֨ה לָכֶ֥ם קֹ֛דֶשׁ שַׁבַּ֥ת שַׁבָּת֖וֹן לַיהוָ֑ה כָּל־הָעֹשֶׂ֥ה ב֛וֹ מְלָאכָ֖ה יוּמָֽת׃

On six days work may be done, but on the seventh day you shall have a sabbath of complete rest, holy to the LORD; whoever does any work on it shall be put to death.

Question: 

Why does the Torah mention that they cannot work on shabbos when that law was already given to them? Why does the Torah add an extra level of harshness and say that anyone who does the work on shabbos will be put to death?

According to Rashi, Moshe conveyed the message this way to show that nothing should supersede shabbos, even building the משכן   

What are other reasons for Issur Melacha on Shabbos? What is so significant about Shabbos and it's relationship to the Jewish people?

Vayakhel #1- Leimor x2?

"ויאמר משה אל כל עדת בני ישראל לאמר זה הדבר אשר צוה ה' לאמר"

(35:4)

 “Leimor” means to tell others a message, but "leimor" is written 2 times. Why?

The Rambam says, when you give tzedakah it is one of the biggest mitzvot. When you give tzedakah to a person, you are supposed to keep it annonymous. However, if you give tzedakah to a public chessed like a yeshiva or shul you should make it public. So with the Mishkan it says "leimor" 2 times to show that Hashem and Moshe wanted to recognize everyone who donated to the Mishkan.

What are other reasons for keeping mitzvos private? What else can we learn from the donations to the Mishkan?

Ki Tisa #3- Ki Tisa

30:11- כִּ֣י תִשָּׂ֞א אֶת־רֹ֥אשׁ בְּנֵֽי־יִשְׂרָאֵ֘ל לִפְקֻדֵיהֶם֒ וְנָ֨תְנ֜וּ אִ֣ישׁ כֹּ֧פֶר נַפְשׁ֛וֹ לַיהוָ֖ה בִּפְקֹ֣ד אֹתָ֑ם וְלֹא־יִהְיֶ֥ה בָהֶ֛ם נֶ֖גֶף בִּפְקֹ֥דאֹתָֽם׃

What are other meanings of Ki Tisa and what other ways do Mepharshim say we can count people?

Rashi says that when you count people, you should not take polls but you should have everyone give half a shekel and you will count the amount of shekels.

Ki Tisa #2- Why 1/2 a shekel?

In כי תשא, Hashem says to Moshe  in pasukim 12 and 13: 

יבכִּ֣י תִשָּׂ֞א אֶת־רֹ֥אשׁ בְּנֵֽי־יִשְׂרָאֵל֘ לִפְקֻֽדֵיהֶם֒ וְנָ֨תְנ֜וּ אִ֣ישׁ כפר נַפְשׁ֛וֹ לַֽיהֹוָ֖ה בִּפְקֹ֣ד אֹתָ֑ם וְלֹא־יִֽהְיֶ֥ה בָהֶ֛ם נֶ֖גֶף בִּפְקֹ֥ד אֹתָֽם:יגזֶ֣ה | יִתְּנ֗וּ כָּל־הָֽעֹבֵר֙ עַל־הַפְּקֻדִ֔ים מַֽחֲצִ֥ית הַשֶּׁ֖קֶל בְּשֶׁ֣קֶל הַקֹּ֑דֶשׁ עֶשְׂרִ֤ים גֵּרָה֙ הַשֶּׁ֔קֶל מַֽחֲצִ֣ית הַשֶּׁ֔קֶל תְּרוּמָ֖ה לַֽיהֹוָֽה:

12"When you take the sum of the children of Israel according to their numbers, let each one give to the Lord an atonement for his soul when they are counted; then there will be no plague among them when they are counted. 13This they shall give, everyone who goes through the counting: half a shekel according to the holy shekel. Twenty gerahs equal one shekel; half of [such] a shekel shall be an offering to the Lord.

Question: Why does Hashem specifically say to give a Half Shekel ? Is there any significance or symbol for the specific amount ? Also, why is the Shekel given versus any other type of object? Is there any significance or symbol for the Shekel itself?

One Answer: a reason given by Chabad. Org for the  use of a Half Shekel is that the Half Shekel was also the amount given in the time of Bais Hamikdash.  Therefore, the Half Shekel can be seen as a symbol for the past, present, and future relationship between Hashem and His people

Ki Tisa #1- Aharon

ויקהל העם על אהרן ויאמרו אליו קום עשה לנו אלהים"

“The people gathered around Aharon and said to him, ‘Get up and make us a god.’” (לב:א)

Question: Avodah zarah is one of the three transgressions for which there is a rule that you should be killed rather than commit the sin. 

Why didn’t Aharon let himself be killed rather than make the golden calf?

Tetzaveh #3- Burn or Bake?

Perek 27  -  Passuk 20

כוְאַתָּ֞ה תְּצַוֶּ֣ה | אֶת־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֗ל וְיִקְח֨וּ אֵלֶ֜יךָ שֶׁ֣מֶן זַ֥יִת זָ֛ךְ כָּתִ֖ית לַמָּא֑וֹר לְהַֽעֲלֹ֥ת נֵ֖ר תָּמִֽיד:

Question and source:

Rashi explains that the first drop of oil pressed is the finest, and this oil was used for lighting the Menorah. The remaining oil which was not as pure, was then used for menachot (meal offerings). 

Normally, one would use the best oil for baking and the not so great oil for burning or lighting so why in the Mishkan, was it the opposite?

Tetzaveh #2- Commanded?

In שמות, Perek כז, Pasuk כ, it says ואתה תצוה את בני ישראל ויקחו אליך שמן זית זך כתית למאור להעלת נר תמיד. 

Why did the Pasuk have to say ואתה תצוה-that you had to order them (when talking about taking the olive oil)? In every case Moshe instructed the people to do something, so why did it have to specifically say in this case that he commanded them? 

The רמבן explains that Moshe had to inspect the olive oil to make sure that it was pure and good enough to be used for the נר תמיד. 

I think this opinion really makes sense because it shows how important this specific case was for Moshe and the נר תמיד. If it didn’t specifically say ואתה תצוה, it would be like any other case. 

Tetzaveh #1- Pomegranates?

Perek 28 Pasoke 33:

וְעָשִׂ֣יתָ עַל־שׁוּלָ֗יו רִמֹּנֵי֙ תְּכֵ֤לֶת וְאַרְגָּמָן֙ וְתוֹלַ֣עַת שָׁנִ֔י עַל־שׁוּלָ֖יו סָבִ֑יב וּפַעֲמֹנֵ֥י זָהָ֛ב בְּתוֹכָ֖ם סָבִֽיב׃

On its hem make pomegranates of blue, purple, and crimson yarns, all around the hem, with bells of gold between them all around:

The Me'il which was worn by the Kohen Gadol had 72 bells and 72 pomegranate trinkets attached to it in alternating order. Their purpose was to announce Kohen Gadol's arrival in the Mishkan and his departure from it. So what can we learn from this? 

The fact that his presence was announced tells us that a person should not enter his house unexpectedly teaching us the lesson of being sensitive and respectful of other people. 

This idea came from Rabbi Eli Scheller at aish.com 

http://www.aish.com/tp/b/1-min-vort/243216511.html

Do the pomegranates and bells have another purpose and what can we learn from them/ what might they signify? What else can we learn from the details of the Kohen Gadol’s clothing? 

Teruma #3- Pure Gold

In Shemot, perek כ׳״ה, pasuk ל״א, it’s says:

“And you shall make a menorah of pure gold. The menorah shall be made of hammered work; its base and its stem, its goblets, its knobs, and its flowers shall [all] be [one piece] with it.”

Why does Hashem want Moshe to make the menorah out of one piece of gold? Why cant he just assemble it using different pieces like with the other Keilim?

It says in Torat Moshe that the reason for this was for Aaron to understand that his job was to create a sense of unity that parallels the unity in Shamayim

Teruma #2- for ME?

In parshat teruma perek כה pasuk ב it says:

 דבר אל בני ישראל ויקחו לי תרומה. 

Why does it say ויקחו לי? 

It can just say ויקחו תרומה instead of adding the extra word of לי. 

Rashi says the “extra” word is there for a reason. He says the word לי is adding that Bnei yisrael should do this act of teruma “in my name” or in other words in honor of Hashem.

I really agree with this opinion because I feel every word in the Torah has a reason and purpose for being there. Here the word that seems extra is actually a beautiful way of honoring Hashem. 

Teruma #1- Keruvim

In parshat truma Perek כה pasuk יח it says ועשית שנים כרביםזהב מקשה תעשה אתם משני קצות הכפרות make 2 Kruvim of gold and you shall hammer them to the 2 ends of the cover. Many commentaries don’t understand the meaning of כרובים. What are these? What do they look like? Rashi explains the look of the kruvim which apparently “resembled the form of a child’s face”. 

Mishpatim #3- Intention Killing?

Pasuk Yud Daled in Perek Kaf Aleph states :

וְכִֽי־יָזִ֥ד

“But if a man plots delibritaley”

Rashi asks:

Why is it written as delibritaley?

He answers by first giving examples of people not trying to kill someone, yet still trying to punish them in a way

A teacher disciplining his student

A father who strikes his son

An unintentional killer

A doctor who kills his patient (ie. via surgery)

By giving these examples, he is answering the question by saying that a man who DELIBERATELY kills someone, deserves to die, rather than someone with different intentions. It use this language to show what the law is ( that if you have the intention of killing someone, you deserve death because of your intent).

Mishpatim #2- Eye for an Eye?

In this week's parsha, when discussing monetary damages, it is written in Perek 21 Pasuk 25:

עַ֚יִן תַּ֣חַת עַ֔יִן שֵׁ֖ן תַּ֣חַת שֵׁ֑ן יָ֚ד תַּ֣חַת יָ֔ד רֶ֖גֶל תַּ֥חַת רָֽגֶל

eye for eye, tooth for tooth, hand for hand, foot for foot,

Rashi explains this Pasuk by saying “If one blinded the eye of his fellow-man he has to pay him the value of his eye, i. e. he pays him how much his value would be diminished if he were to be sold as a slave in the market...but it does not mean the actual cutting off of the offender’s limb”

What are other explanations for this easily misinterpreted Pasuk? Why is it put here?

Mishpatim #1- Sukkot?

In Parshat Mishpatim, the celebration of the Shalosh Regalim, of Pesach, Succot, and Shavuot is commanded. As it says in כג :יד-יז

"שָׁלֹשׁ רְגָלִים, תָּחֹג לִי בַּשָּׁנָה
אֶת-חַג הַמַּצּוֹת, תִּשְׁמֹר--שִׁבְעַת יָמִים תֹּאכַל מַצּוֹת כַּאֲשֶׁר צִוִּיתִךָ לְמוֹעֵד חֹדֶשׁ הָאָבִיב, כִּי-בוֹ יָצָאתָ מִמִּצְרָיִם; וְלֹא-יֵרָאוּ פָנַי, רֵיקָם.
וְחַג הַקָּצִיר בִּכּוּרֵי מַעֲשֶׂיךָ, אֲשֶׁר תִּזְרַע בַּשָּׂדֶה; וְחַג הָאָסִף בְּצֵאת הַשָּׁנָה, בְּאָסְפְּךָ אֶת-מַעֲשֶׂיךָ מִן-הַשָּׂדֶה.
שָׁלֹשׁ פְּעָמִים, בַּשָּׁנָה--יֵרָאֶה, כָּל-זְכוּרְךָ, אֶל-פְּנֵי, הָאָדֹן יְהוָה".

There is something about this commandment seems troubling. We know and recognize that  these are the big three holidays we must celebrate, but are all three equally important?

From the pasuk, it seems like Hashem gave us a reason for Pesach and Shavuot, but He did not mention anything about Succot. It is bizarre that the Pasuk doesn't mention any details or explanations for Succot but mentions for the other two holidays? Why is that?

Rav Soloveitchik explains that The Shalosh Regalim all share the same Kedushat HaYom. Furthermore, they are not totally independent chagim, but rather they make an integrated series. We recognizes the Regalim, not as three separate holidays, but rather as a unit.

What other source can explain why succot was not given any detail? Do you think all of the shalosh regalim equally important, or is one greater than the rest?